All Physiology Multiple Choice Questions from Bank

Digestion 1-15
Blood 16-34
Gas Ex 35-43
Homeostasis 44-54
Excretion 55-72
Disease 73-96
Reproduction 97-137
Nerves 138-147
Muscles and bones 148-150

1.	Which organ secretes enzymes that are active at a low pH?
A.	Mouth
B.	Pancreas
C.	Stomach
D.	Liver

 
2.	Which of the following is correct regarding the enzymes listed in the table?
		Enzyme	
		Amylase	Lipase	Protease	
A.	Substrate	polysaccharide	emulsified fat	dipeptide or polypeptide	
B.	Substrate	emulsified fat	dipeptide or polypeptide	polysaccharide	
C.	Product	amino acids	small polysaccharides or monosaccharides	fatty acids and glycerol	
D.	Product	small polysaccharides or monosaccharides	amino acids	fatty acids and glycerol	

 
3.	Two cellular activities that support human life are absorption and assimilation. What is needed for assimilation but not for absorption?
A.	Enzymes to synthesize new molecules
B.	Blood capillaries
C.	Dissolved nutrients
D.	Microvilli

4.	Which types of enzyme are found in the human digestive system?
I.	Amylases
II.	Proteases
III.	Lipases
A.	I and II only
B.	I and III only
C.	II and III only
D.	I, II and III
 
5.	What sequence of organs do substances pass through, as they move through the human digestive system?
A. Mouth  stomach  pancreas  small intestine  liver  large intestine  anus
B. Mouth  stomach  small intestine  pancreas  liver  large intestine  anus
C. Mouth  esophagus  stomach  small intestine  large intestine  anus
D. Mouth  esophagus  stomach  large intestine  small intestine  anus
 
6.	Why is most food digested?
A.	Digestive enzymes require a variety of substrates.
B.	It ensures that the diet is balanced.
C.	Most ingested food molecules are large.
D.	To prevent disorders of the intestine.

7.	In the digestive system, enzyme A has an optimum pH of 1.5 and enzyme B an optimum pH of 7.
What are the possible substrates of these enzymes?
	Enzyme A	Enzyme B	
A.	proteins	amino acids	
B.	lipids	proteins	
C.	carbohydrates	lipids	
D.	proteins	lipids	

8.	Where is the gall bladder located?
A.	Surrounded by the liver
B.	Surrounded by the pancreas
C.	Behind the intestines in the abdomen
D.	Below the stomach in the abdomen

9.	Which of the following structures help the absorption of food by the small intestine?
I.	Capillary networks
II.	Villi
III.	Microvilli
IV.	Membrane proteins
A.	I and II only
B.	II and III only
C.	II, III and IV only
D.	I, II, III and IV

10.	Which of the following structures increase the surface area for absorption of digested food in the small intestine?
	I.	Microvilli
II.	Protein pumps
III.	Villi
A.	I only
B.	I and III only
C.	II and III only
D.	I, II and III

11.	What is absorption?
A.	Food entering the mouth and being chewed
B.	Food entering the stomach for digestion
C.	Taking digested food into the blood stream
D.	Making complex organic molecules in cells using digested foods

12.	What are the characteristics of the lipase used in digestion?
	Source	Optimum pH	Substrate	
A.	Pancreas	8	Lipid	
B.	Small intestine	8	Lipid	
C.	Stomach	2	Sucrose	
D.	Liver	8	Lipid	

13.	What does the digestion of starch by amylase produce?
A.	Lactose
B.	Sucrose
C.	Galactose
D.	Maltose
14.	Ducts connect the liver, gall bladder and pancreas to the alimentary canal. Which diagram shows the correct pattern of duct connections?

 
15.	What substance is released into the blood by the pancreas when blood glucose levels are low?
A.	Glucose
B.	Glucagon
C.	Glycogen
D.	Insulin
 
Blood and Circulation
16.	Which vessel carries deoxygenated blood?
A.	The pulmonary artery
B.	The coronary artery
C.	The aorta
D.	The pulmonary vein
 
17.	What is transported by the blood?
I.	Carbon dioxide
II	Antibodies
III	Urea
A.	I only
B.	I and II only
C.	II and III only
D.	I, II and III

18.	What is the function of the right ventricle?
A.	Pumping blood into the pulmonary artery
B.	Pumping blood into the pulmonary vein
C.	Pumping blood into the aorta
D.	Pumping blood into the coronary artery

19.	Which is the correct sequence of blood flow in normal human circulation?
A.	Pulmonary vein  right atrium  aorta  vena cava
B.	Vena cava  pulmonary vein  aorta  right atrium
C.	Vena cava  right atrium  pulmonary vein  aorta
D.	Pulmonary vein  vena cava  aorta   right atrium
 
20.	The diagram below shows a section through the lower part of the heart, with two of the heart’s four chambers visible.

Labels X and Y show the walls of two chambers of the heart. Which two chambers are they?
	X	Y	
A.	Right ventricle	Right atrium	
B.	Left atrium	Right atrium	
C.	Left ventricle	Right ventricle	
D.	Right ventricle	Left ventricle	

21.	What is the role of thrombin in the process of blood clotting?
A.	Captures blood cells which accumulate to form a blood clot.
B.	Catalyses the conversion of fibrinogen into fibrin.
C.	Causes the release of clotting factors from platelets.
D.	Converted into prothrombin by platelets.

22.	Which human activities may increase or decrease the greenhouse effect?
	Increases greenhouse effect	Decreases greenhouse effect	
A.	Deforestation	More use of fossil fuels	
B.	Reforestation	More use of solar power	
C.	Less use of air conditioning	Less use of public transport	
D	More cattle farming	Reforestation	

23.	Which is the correct sequence of events in a heart beat?
A.	Atria
contract		Ventricles
contract		Semi-lunar
valves close		Atrio-ventricular
valves close	
B.	Atria
contract		Atrio-ventricular
valves close		Ventricles
contract		Semi-lunar
valves close	
C.	Atria
contract		Ventricles
contract		Atrio-ventricular
valves close		Semi-lunar
valves open	
D.	Ventricles
contract		Atria
contract		Atrio-ventricular
valves close		Semi-lunar
valves close	

24.	The diagram below shows the human heart. Which parts contain the most oxygenated blood?

A.	P and T
B.	Q, R and S
C.	T, U, V and W
D.	T, U, R and S
25.	What is happening in the heart when the semi-lunar valves are closed?
I.	Blood is entering the aorta.
II.	Blood is entering the pulmonary artery.
III.	Blood is entering the ventricles.
IV.	The ventricles are contracting.
A.	I and II only
B.	I and III only
C.	III only
D.	III and IV only

 
26.	Which sequence will result in the formation of a blood clot?
A.	Damaged cells  clotting factors  thrombin  fibrin
B.	Damaged cells  red blood cells  clotting factors  fibrinogen
C.	Red blood cells  clotting factors  damaged cells  fibrinogen
D.	Red blood cells  clotting factors  thrombin  fibrinogen

27.	Which of the following are functions of all mammalian arteries?
I.	To carry oxygenated blood
II.	To carry blood away from the heart
III.	To carry blood under high pressure
A.	I and III only
B.	I, II and III
C.	II and III only
D.	I and II only

28.	What does the body use to control the heartbeat?
I.	Adrenalin
II.	Pacemaker
III.	Nerves from brain
A.	II and III only
B.	I and II only
C.	I, II and III
D.	I and III only

29.	Which of the following best describes the composition of human blood?
A.	Erythrocytes, leucocytes and platelets
B.	Erythrocytes, phagocytes and platelets
C.	Erythrocytes, lymphocytes and platelets
D.	Erythrocytes, antigens and platelets

30.	Which vessels correspond with the descriptions of I, II and III below?
I.	Thick outer layer of longitudinal collagen. Thick layers of circular elastic and muscle fibres. Narrow lumen.
II.	Thin outer layer of longitudinal collagen. Thin layers with a few circular elastic and muscle fibres. Wide lumen.
III.	Wall consists of single layer of cells. Pores between cells that form the wall. Very narrow lumen.
	I	II	III	
A.	artery	vein	capillary	
B.	vein	artery	capillary	
C.	artery	capillary	vein	
D.	vein	capillary	artery	

31.	What are the structures labelled I and II on the diagram of the heart?

A.	I is the pulmonary artery and II is the atrio-ventricular valve.
B.	I is the pulmonary vein and II is the atrio-ventricular valve.
C.	I is the pulmonary artery and II is the semi-lunar valve.
D.	I is the pulmonary vein and II is the semi-lunar valve.

32.	Which is the correct sequence of events when skin is cut and bleeding occurs?
	I.	Thrombin is produced
II.	Fibrinogen is converted into fibrin
III.	Platelets release clotting factors
A.	I  II  III
B.	I  III  II
C.	III  II  I
D.	III  I  II

33.	Which vessel carries deoxygenated blood?
A.	The coronary artery
B.	The pulmonary artery
C.	The aorta
D.	The pulmonary vein

34.	William Harvey discovered that blood flows away from the heart in arteries and back to the heart in veins. What hypothesis could be developed from this discovery?
A.	The human body contains both arteries and veins.
B.	Blood vessels link up arteries to veins.
C.	How blood moves from arteries into veins.
D.	Veins are connected to the left side of the heart and arteries to the right side.

GAS Exchange
 
35.	What conditions are necessary for air to be exhaled from the lungs?
A.	Air pressure in the alveoli must become greater than the air pressure in the mouth.
B.	Air pressure in the alveoli must become lower than the air pressure in the mouth.
C.	Air pressure in the alveoli must become the same as the air pressure in the mouth.
D.	There is no change in the air pressure of the alveoli or the mouth.

36.	What defines the terms ventilation, gas exchange and cell respiration in mammals?
	Ventilation	Gas exchange	Cell respiration	
A.	providing fresh air	replacing oxygen with carbon
dioxide in blood in lungs	cellular energy
production from glucose	
B.	muscle movement to move
fresh air into alveoli	replacing carbon dioxide with
oxygen in blood in lungs	gases crossing the plasma
membrane of a cell	
C.	muscle movement to move
fresh air into alveoli	replacing carbon dioxide with
oxygen in blood in lungs	cellular energy
production from glucose	
D.	providing fresh air	replacing oxygen with carbon
dioxide in blood in lungs	gases crossing the plasma
membrane of a cell	

37.	Which muscles contract to cause air to pass out from the lungs through the bronchioles?
A.	Internal intercostal muscles and diaphragm
B.	Internal intercostal muscles and abdomen wall muscles
C.	External intercostal muscles and diaphragm
D.	External intercostal muscles and abdomen wall muscles

38.	What happens during inhalation?
A.	Both the external intercostal muscles and the diaphragm contract.
B.	The internal intercostal muscles contract and the diaphragm relaxes.
C.	The external intercostal muscles relax and the diaphragm contracts.
D.	Both the internal intercostal muscles and the diaphragm relax.

39.	Capillaries surround the alveoli in the lungs. Which pair of statements correctly describes the concentrations of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the lungs?
	Oxygen	Carbon dioxide	
A.	Higher in the capillaries	Higher in the alveoli	
B.	Lower in the capillaries	Higher in the alveoli	
C.	Lower in the alveoli	Higher in the capillaries	
D.	Higher in the alveoli	Higher in the capillaries	

40.	How many times does an oxygen molecule cross a plasma membrane when moving from inside an alveolus to the hemoglobin of a red blood cell?
A.	Two
B.	Three
C.	Four
D.	Five

41.	Which of the following is part of the process of ventilation?
A.	Changes in the volume of the thoracic cavity
B.	Exchange of gases across the surface of the alveoli
C.	Exchange of gases across the surface of capillaries
D.	Cellular respiration

42.	Which of the following changes occur with the onset of exercise?
A.	Increase in pH of blood
B.	Increase in rate of cellular respiration
C.	Decrease in rate of contraction of the diaphragm
D.	Decrease in carbon dioxide concentration of the blood

43.	What is the role of the internal intercostal muscles during ventilation of the lungs?
A.	Increasing the pressure in the thorax
B.	Increasing the volume in the thorax
C.	Increasing the surface area of the alveoli
D.	Increasing the diameter of the bronchioles

Homeostasis

 44.	The diagram shows how the body regulates glucose levels in the blood.

What is Y?
A.	Amylase
B.	Insulin
C.	Glucagon
D.	Glycogen

45.	In thermoregulation, what would happen over a short period of time in each of these areas, if a person was placed in water at 15°C ?
	Peripheral circulation	Sweat glands	Liver	Skeletal muscle	
A	Increased blood flow	Increased secretion	Decreased temperature	Decreased shivering	
B	Decreased blood flow	Decreased secretion	Decreased temperature	Increased shivering	
C	Decreased blood flow	Increased secretion	No change in temperature	Increased shivering	
D	Decreased blood flow	Decreased secretion	No change in temperature	Increased shivering	

46.	Which play a role in controlling body temperature?
	I.	Blood
II.	Skin arterioles
III.	Body hair
A.	I and II only
B.	I and III only
C.	II and III only
D.	I, II and III

47.	What are responsible for the lowering of blood glucose levels?
I.	-cells in the pancreas
II.	Insulin molecules
III.	-cells in the pancreas
A.	II only
B.	I and II only
C.	II and III only
D.	I, II and III

48.	How do endocrine glands function when they are involved in homeostasis?
A.	They release hormones directly into the blood system.
B.	They release hormones through ducts to where they are used.
C.	They release digestive enzymes from the pancreas.
D.	They cause positive feedback in the body’s structures.

49.	Under what conditions is glucagon secretion increased?
A.	After fasting for a long period
B.	While resting
C.	After a meal rich in carbohydrates
D.	When the temperature falls

50.	Arterioles in the skin contain muscle fibres which contract. What is the function of these fibres?
A.	To move capillaries further from the skin when the body is too cold
B.	To reduce blood flow to the skin when the body is too cold
C.	To move capillaries closer to the skin when the body is too warm
D.	To increase blood flow to the skin when the body is too warm

51.	Which of the following is closely associated with lowering of high body temperature?
A.	Constriction of blood vessels in the skin
B.	Vasodilation of blood vessels in the skin
C.	Increased shivering
D.	Decreased sweat production
(1)
52.	Which cells secrete insulin?
A.	-cells of the pancreas
B.	Cells of the liver
C.	-cells of the pancreas
D.	Epithelial cells of the intestine
(1) 
53.	Which best describes the role of the kidney in homeostasis?
A.	Storage of urine
B.	Producing urine at a constant rate
C.	Removing urea from the blood
D.	Maintaining the water content of the blood between narrow limits

54.	Which process decreases when the human body temperature decreases?
A.	Blood flow to the internal organs
B.	Secretion of sweat
C.	Secretion of insulin
D.	Shivering

Excretion 

55.	What can be changed in the kidney over a period of time in order to carry out the process of osmoregulation?
A.	The amount of blood flowing to the kidney
B.	The amount of fluid filtered from the blood in the glomeruli
C.	The amount of solutes selectively reabsorbed in the proximal convoluted tubule
D.	The amount of water reabsorbed in the collecting ducts

56.	What are the main excretory products of birds?
I.	Urea
II.	Uric acid
III.	Ammonia
IV.	Carbon dioxide
A.	I and III only
B.	II and IV only
C.	III and IV only
D.	II, III, and IV only

57.	What substances are normally removed from the body by the kidney?
I.	Excess salts
II.	Water
III.	Glucose
A.	I and II only
B.	I and III only
C.	II and III only
D.	I, II and III

58.	Which process in the human body produces nitrogenous wastes?
A.	Osmoregulation
B.	Degradation of amino acids
C.	Cellular respiration
D.	Ultrafiltration

59.	What process do the kidney and kidney dialysis machines have in common?
A.	Endocytosis
B.	Active transport
C.	Diffusion
D.	Exocytosis

60.	The diagram below shows part of the glomerulus from a kidney as seen under the electron microscope. Which part is the basement membrane?

 
61.	Where in the kidney does ultrafiltration take place?
A.	Glomerulus
B.	Loop of Henlé
C.	Proximal tubule
D.	Collecting ducts

62.	What changes will take place in the composition of urine produced on a hot summer’s day after playing sports for an hour?
	Volume of urine flow	Salt excretion	Urea concentration	
A.	Decreases	Increases	Increases	
B.	Decreases	Decreases	Increases	
C.	Increases	Increases	Increases	
D.	Decreases	Increases	Decreases	

63.	How are excretory products removed from the blood during kidney dialysis, without removing glucose?
A.	The dialysis membrane allows excretory products to pass through, but not glucose.
B.	A potential difference across the dialysis membrane draws through excretory products only.
C.	Excretory products dissolve in dialysis fluid but glucose does not.
D.	The dialysis fluid contains glucose but not excretory products.
 
64.	The walls of blood capillaries in the kidney are fenestrated. How does the fenestration of these capillaries help in the production of urine?
A.	A larger volume of fluid can be filtered out of the blood per minute.
B.	Small molecules are allowed through but not large ones.
C.	Higher blood pressures can be tolerated without damage to the capillaries.
D.	Phagocytes are able to escape from the capillaries and prevent kidney infections.

65.	What structures are labelled I, II and III in the diagram of the kidney below?
	
	I	II	III	
A.	Cortex	Medulla	Urethra	
B.	Medulla	Pelvis	Ureter	
C.	Cortex	Medulla	Ureter	
D.	Medulla	Pelvis	Urethra	

66.	What is the importance of excretion to a living organism?
A.	It prevents waste products from accumulating in the environment around the organism.
B.	It ensures that recycling of nitrogen continues in the organism’s ecosystem.
C.	It prevents feces from accumulating in the digestive system of the organism.
D.	It ensures that the organism is not poisoned by its own waste products.

67.	In a human diet, what effect does a high intake of both protein and salt have on urea and salt concentrations of urine?
	Urea Concentration	Salt Concentration	
A.	High	Low	
B.	Low	High	
C.	High	High	
D.	Low	Low	

68.	In which part of the nephron is the glucose concentration of the filtrate reduced?
A.	Distal convoluted tubule
B.	Proximal convoluted tubule
C.	Ascending limb of the loop of Henlé
D.	Descending limb of the loop of Henlé

69.	Which type of urine would be produced in a human whose diet contains very small quantities of protein or fluid?
	Urea Concentration	Salt Concentration	
A.	High	Low	
B.	Low	High	
C.	High	High	
D.	Low	Low	

70.	What part of the kidney is affected by anti-diuretic hormone (ADH)?
A.	Proximal convoluted tubule
B.	Loop of Henle
C.	Collecting duct
D.	Glomerulus
 
71.	Anti-diuretic hormone has its main effect on which part of the nephron?
A.	Proximal tubule
B.	Bowman’s capsule
C.	Loop of Henle
D.	Collecting duct
72.	Which part of the nephron shown below is impermeable to water molecules?

A.	I
B.	II
C.	III
D	IV
(1)
Disease

73.	Which of the following represents the correct sequence of events when the body is responding to a bacterial infection?
I.	Antigen presentation by macrophages
II.	Activation of B-cells
III.	Activation of helper T-cells
A.	I, II, III
B.	I, III, II
C.	III, II, I
D.	II, III, I

74.	Which is not true of active immunity?
A.	It can be produced by exposure to a disease causing organism.
B.	It can be produced artificially.
C.	It can be produced by a virus.
D.	It can be transferred via the colostrum.

75.	Why do antibiotics kill bacteria but not viruses?
A.	Antibiotics stimulate the immune system against bacteria but not viruses
B.	Viruses have a way of blocking antibiotics
C.	Viruses are too small to be affected by antibiotics
D.	Viruses do not have a metabolism

76.	Which curve shows the response of the immune system to a vaccine, followed by an infection?

77.	What is required to form a blood clot?
I.	Platelets
II.	Clotting factors
III.	Antibodies
IV.	Fibrinogen
A.	I and II only
B.	I, II and III only
C.	I, II and IV only
D.	I, II, III and IV

78.	Which type of cell is responsible for secondary immune responses to a pathogen?
A.	Cytotoxic T-cells
B.	Phagocytes
C.	Macrophages
D.	Memory cells

79.	Which types of cells in the immune system destroy body cells that have been infected by viruses?
A.	Activated B-cells
B.	Cytotoxic T-cells
C.	Phagocytic macrophages
D.	Plasma cells formed by clonal selection

80.	A blood clot contains a network of protein. What is the protein?
A.	Fibrin
B.	Fibrinogen
C.	Hemoglobin
D.	Thrombin
(1)
81.	In a nerve impulse, what happens at the site following the highest point of the action potential?
A.	Voltage-gated sodium ion channels open and Na+ is pumped in.
B.	Voltage-gated sodium ion channels open and Na+ diffuses out.
C.	Voltage-gated potassium ion channels open and K+ is pumped out.
D.	Voltage-gated potassium ion channels open and K+ diffuses out.
(1)
82.	How do skin and mucous membranes act as barriers to infection?
	Skin	Mucous membranes	
A.	Skin is tough and forms an effective
physical barrier.	Mucous membranes are thick and
elastic so pathogens are repelled.	
B.	Phagocytes on the skin surface trap
pathogens.	Mucus is moved out of the body
by the beating of hair-like cilia.	
C.	Skin is tough and forms an effective
physical barrier.	Pathogens are trapped by sticky
mucus.	
D.	Phagocytes on the skin surface trap
pathogens.	The acidity of mucus kills harmful
bacteria.	

83.	Which of the following is/are necessary to produce monoclonal antibodies?
I.	Tumour cells
II.	Plasma (B) cells
III.	Macrophages
A.	II only
B.	I and II only
C.	II and III only
D.	I, II and III

84.	Which of the following explains clonal selection?
A.	Memory cells are present at birth.
B.	Antigens activate specific immune responses.
C.	The body selects which antigens it will respond to.
D.	People with similar genes respond to antigens in a similar way.

85.	What is a pathogen?
A.	A virus that causes a disease.
B.	Any organism or virus that causes a disease.
C.	A disease caused by bacteria or viruses.
D.	Any organism transmitted from humans to humans.

86.	Which sequence of events correctly describes the destruction of pathogens in body tissues by phagocytic leucocytes?
A.	Amoeboid motion  endocytosis  chemical recognition  enzymatic digestion
B.	Chemical recognition  amoeboid motion  enzymatic digestion  endocytosis
C.	Amoeboid motion  chemical recognition  enzymatic digestion  endocytosis
D.	Chemical recognition  amoeboid motion  endocytosis  enzymatic digestion

87.	Why are there many different types of lymphocyte in the body?
A.	Each type can recognize one specific antibody and produces a specific antigen against it.
B.	Each type can recognize one specific antigen and produces a specific antibody against it.
C.	Each type can recognize one antigen and engulf it by phagocytosis.
D.	Each type can recognize one antibody and engulf it by phagocytosis.
 
88.	How do phagocytic leucocytes help to protect against disease?
A.	They secrete bacterial toxins by exocytosis.
B.	They ingest pathogens by endocytosis.
C.	They produce antigens to destroy pathogens.
D.	They produce antibodies to destroy pathogens.

89.	What is a pathogen?
A.	An organism that transmits a disease to humans
B.	A factor that causes lethal mutations
C.	A gene that makes a disease lethal
D.	An organism causing a disease

90.	Some infectious diseases are treated by injecting the patient with antibodies after they have been exposed to the disease.
What type of immunity is this?
A.	Artificial and active
B.	Artificial and passive
C.	Natural and passive
D.	Natural and active

91.	Which of the following best describes antibodies?
A.	Made by phagocytes and specific to one antigen
B.	Made by lymphocytes and specific to one antigen
C.	Made by leucocytes and non-specific
D.	Made by phagocytes and non-specific

92.	Why are antibiotics ineffective against viruses?
A.	Viruses do not have metabolic pathways for the antibiotic to target.
B.	Viruses have developed resistance to antibiotics.
C.	Viruses destroy T-lymphocytes before the antibiotic can work.
D.	Viruses mutate quickly when challenged by an antibiotic.

93.	Colostrum, the first milk produced by the mother after giving birth, also contains antibodies that can be absorbed into the baby’s blood. What type of immunity is the baby acquiring from its mother?
A.	Passive
B.	Antigen
C.	Active
D.	Artificial

94.	What is the correct order in the production of monoclonal antibodies?
A.	Isolate B-cells producing specific antibody → inject antigens into animal → fuse B-cells with tumour cells → harvest monoclonal antibodies.
B.	Inject antigens into animal → isolate B-cells producing specific antibody → fuse B-cells with tumour cells → harvest monoclonal antibodies.
C.	Isolate B-cells producing specific antibody → fuse B-cells with tumour cells → inject antigens into animal → harvest monoclonal antibodies.
D.	Inject antigens into animal → fuse cultured B-cells with tumour cells → isolate B-cells producing specific antibody → harvest monoclonal antibodies.

95.	Which factors related to mucous membranes protect the body against microbes?
I.	Production of lysozyme
II.	Secretion of alkaline solutions
III.	Trapping of microbes
A.	I and II only
B.	II and III only
C.	I and III only
D.	I, II and III

96.	What name is given to the molecules that bind to foreign proteins that enter the body?
A.	Antigens
B.	Antibodies
C.	Allergens
D.	Antibiotics

Reproduction 
 
97.	What is the function of Sertoli cells?
A.	They nourish sperm.
B.	They produce testosterone.
C.	They nourish interstitial cells.
D.	They form the basement membrane.

98.	What is the outcome for each of the following processes?
	Spermatogenesis	Oogenesis	
A.	4 gametes	4 gametes	
B.	4 gametes	1 gamete and 3 polar bodies	
C.	2 gametes and 2 polar bodies	2 gametes and 2 polar bodies	
D.	1 gamete and 3 polar bodies	4 gametes	

99.	How do the levels of oxytocin and progesterone change immediately prior to birth?
	Oxytocin	Progesterone	
A.	decreases	decreases	
B.	decreases	increases	
C.	increases	decreases	
D.	increases	increases	

100.	Where does human fertilization most frequently occur?
A.	Ovary
B.	Oviduct
C.	Uterus
D.	Vagina

101.	What happens to the polar bodies formed during oogenesis?
A.	They cause the acrosome reaction.
B.	They cause the cortical reaction.
C.	They pull chromosomes to the ends of the cell when the zygote divides.
D.	They are not used and break down.

102.	Where is human chorionic gonadotrophin (HCG) produced?
A.	Ovary
B.	Anterior pituitary
C.	Embryo
D.	Posterior pituitary

103.	Which of the following are functions of the placenta?
I.	Gas exchange
II.	Stimulation of uterine contractions
III.	Secretion of progesterone
IV.	Secretion of estrogens
A.	I only
B.	III and IV only
C.	I, III and IV only
D.	I, II, III and IV
(1)
104.	What does oxytocin control?
A.	Brain development of the fetus
B.	Onset of ovulation
C.	Stimulation of uterine contractions
D.	Implantation of the blastocyst
(1)
105.	How can testis tissue be distinguished from ovary tissue, when seen using a light microscope?
A.	Testis tissue has a layer of muscle fibres and ovary tissue does not.
B.	Testis tissue is cooler than ovary tissue.
C.	Testis tissue contains tubules and ovary tissue does not.
D.	Testis tissue contains pain receptors and ovary tissue does not.

106.	Which of the following occur(s) at birth in the mother’s body?
I.	Increase in oxytocin
II.	Increase in uterine contractions
III.	Increase in levels of progesterone
A.	I only
B.	I and II only
C.	II and III only
D.	I, II and III

107.	Which organ secretes FSH (follicle-stimulating hormone)?
A.	Ovary
B.	Testis
C.	Pituitary gland
D.	Placenta

108.	Which substance is at a higher concentration in the blood of a fetus compared with the blood of the mother?
A.	Antibodies
B.	Glucose
C.	Amino acids
D.	Urea
 
109.	What part of spermatogenesis in humans takes place while spermatids are associated with Sertoli cells?
A.	Cell differentiation
B.	First division of meiosis
C.	Second division of meiosis
D.	Testosterone production

110.	Which hormones cause the wall of the follicle to develop after ovulation and to secrete more progesterone?
A.	FSH and LH
B.	LH and HCG
C.	HCG and oxytocin
D.	Oxytocin and FSH
 
111.	How does the amniotic fluid help the fetus during pregnancy?
I.	Supplies food to allow the fetus to grow rapidly
II.	Supports the fetus so that no part of it is under excess pressure
III.	Protects the fetus by acting as a shock absorber
A.	I and II only
B.	I and III only
C.	II and III only
D.	I, II and III
 
112.	Why is human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) important in early pregnancy?
A.	It is required for equal cell divisions in the growing embryo.
B.	It stimulates the ovary to continue production of estrogen and progesterone.
C.	It increases the rate of cell division in the embryo.
D.	It promotes growth of the inner cell mass within the embryo.

113.	Which of the following outlines the roles of the two hormones oxytocin and progesterone during childbirth?
	Oxytocin	Progesterone	
A.	causes uterine contraction	level rises allowing oxytocin
production	
B.	level falls allowing progesterone
production	causes uterine contraction	
C.	stimulates estrogen production	level falls allowing oxytocin
production	
D.	causes uterine contraction	level falls causing oxytocin
production	

114.	Women should periodically have a Pap smear test performed to detect cervical cancer. Which letter indicates the cervix in the diagram below?

115.	What is the origin and role of luteinizing hormone (LH) in spermatogenesis?
	Origin	Role	
A.	Interstitial cells of testes	triggers first meiotic division	
B.	Pituitary gland	stimulates testosterone production	
C.	Pituitary gland	triggers first meiotic division	
D.	Interstitial cells of testes	stimulates testosterone production	

116.	How does fertilization differ from copulation?
A.	Fertilization always produces a zygote.
B.	Only fertilization involves gametes.
C.	Fertilization is a conscious event.
D.	Fertilization can spread HIV.

117.	Which of the structures labelled in the diagram below provide nourishment for developing sperm cells?

From An Atlas of Histology by Freeman and Bracegirdle. Reprinted with permission from Pearson Education Ltd.

118.	In which of the following structures does meiosis take place?
A.	Epididymis
B.	Prostate gland
C.	Testis
D.	Seminal vesicle

119.	Which hormone maintains the corpus luteum in the ovary of a woman at implantation?
A.	FSH
B.	LH
C.	HCG
D.	Progesterone

120.	In the menstrual cycle in humans, which hormone causes the wall of the follicle to develop after ovulation and to secrete more progesterone?
A.	Estrogen
B.	FSH
C.	LH
D.	Oxytocin

121.	Which labelled structures represent the epididymis and the prostate gland?

	Epididymis	Prostate gland	
A.	I	III	
B.	II	III	
C.	I	IV	
D.	IV	I	

122.	During fertilization in humans, where do the acrosome and the cortical reactions occur most often?
	Acrosome reaction	Cortical reaction	
A.	Vagina	Uterus	
B.	Uterus	Oviduct (fallopian tube)	
C.	Oviduct (fallopian tube)	Uterus	
D.	Oviduct (fallopian tube)	Oviduct (fallopian tube)	

123.	What are the levels of the hormones estrogen, progesterone, LH and FSH during the menstrual cycle at the time of ovulation?
	Estrogen	Progesterone	LH	FSH	
A.	High	Low	High	High	
B.	High	High	Low	High	
C.	Low	High	High	Low	
D.	Low	Low	Low	Low	
 
124.	What is the location and function of Sertoli cells?
	Location	Function	
A.	Seminiferous tubule	Feeding developing sperm	
B.	Seminiferous tubule	Feeding interstitial cells	
C.	Epididymis	Feeding developing sperm	
D.	Epididymis	Feeding interstitial cells 	

125.	The diagram below shows the human male reproductive system and associated organs.

	Which of the labelled structures indicate the bladder, prostate and urethra?
	Bladder	Prostate	Urethra	
A.	Y	X	Z	
B.	X	Y	Z	
C.	Z	X	Y	
D.	X	Z	Y	

126.	What happens during amniocentesis?
A.	The amniotic sac fills up with fluid to prevent damage to the fetus.
B.	Amniotic fluid is removed to obtain fetal cells for testing.
C.	The amniotic fluid is replaced to avoid rejection problems with rhesus positive fetuses.
D.	Fluid is emptied from the amniotic sac during childbirth.

127.	After fertilization what is the correct order of events?
A.	Embryo secretes HCG → implantation of embryo in uterine wall → stimulates corpus luteum to grow
B.	Implantation of embryo in uterine wall → stimulates corpus luteum to grow → embryo secretes HCG
C.	Implantation of embryo in uterine wall → embryo secretes HCG → stimulates corpus luteum to grow
D.	Continued secretion of progesterone and estrogen → embryo secretes HCG → stimulates corpus luteum to grow→ implantation of embryo in uterine wall
 
128.	Which correctly describes the role of the epididymis in semen production?
A.	Produces fluid containing fructose to nurture sperm.
B.	Finishes maturation of sperm so that they are capable of swimming.
C.	Produces alkaline fluid with minerals to protect sperm.
D.	Produces fluid containing fructose and store mature sperm.
 
129.	Do the levels of progesterone and FSH increase or remain low during the first few days of the menstrual cycle?
A.	Progesterone and FSH both remain low.
B.	Progesterone remains low but FSH increases.
C.	Progesterone increases but FSH remains low.
D.	Progesterone and FSH both increase.

130.	Human sperm and eggs both consist of single cells. What is a difference between them?
A.	Sperm have more chromosomes than eggs.
B.	Eggs have more chromosomes than sperm.
C.	Sperm have a larger surface area to volume ratio than eggs.
D.	Eggs have a larger surface area to volume ratio than sperm.

 
131.	The levels of hormones vary during the menstrual cycle in women. Each hormone reaches its maximum level at a different time in the cycle. In what sequence do the hormones reach their maximum level, if the cycle begins at the start of menstruation?
A.	LH, progesterone, FSH, estrogen
B.	FSH, progesterone, LH, estrogen
C.	LH, estrogen, FSH, progesterone
D.	FSH, estrogen, LH, progesterone

132.	During oogenesis how many gametes are produced from one oogonium, the cell that starts to divide to produce gametes?
A.	1
B.	2
C.	3
D.	4

133.	What is the function of the epididymis?
A.	Mucus production
B.	Production of nutrient fructose solution
C.	Storage of sperm during maturation
D.	Secretion of alkaline solution
 
134.	What is in vitro fertilization?
A.	Fertilization using donated sperm
B.	Artificial fertilization of an egg inside the body
C.	Fertilization of an egg outside the body
D.	Cloning technique to help couples conceive
 
135.	Which of the following is regulated by positive feedback?
A.	Blood sugar
B.	Temperature
C.	Oxytocin levels
D.	Progesterone levels

136.	What happens to the zygote immediately after fertilization?
A.	It remains in the uterus until placenta develops.
B.	It implants in the wall of the uterus.
C.	It divides by meiosis to form an embryo.
D.	It divides by mitosis to form a blastocyst.
 
137.	How is in vitro fertilization different from natural fertilization in humans?
A.	In vitro fertilization involves artificial injection of sperm into the uterus
B.	In vitro fertilization only involves one parent
C.	In vitro fertilization happens outside the body
D.	In vitro fertilization uses stem cells instead of eggs

Nerves

138.	Which structure is responsible for passing messages directly to effector organs?

139.	The movement of which ion initiates an action potential?
A.	Calcium
B.	Magnesium
C.	Sodium
D.	Potassium

140.	What is the role of active transport in the transmission of nerve impulses by neurones?
A.	Propagates an action potential by pumping sodium ions across the membrane out of the neurone.
B.	Propagates an action potential by pumping sodium ions across the membrane into the neurone.
C.	Initiates the action potential needed for the transmission of an impulse by pumping calcium ions out of the endoplasmic reticulum.
D.	Establishes the resting potential needed for the transmission of an impulse by pumping sodium and potassium ions across the membrane.

141.	What substance enters the presynaptic neuron during synaptic transmission and what substance leaves it?
	Substance entering presynaptic neuron	Substance leaving presynaptic neuron	
A.	Neurotransmitter	Calcium ions (Ca2+)	
B.	Neurotransmitter	Sodium ions (Na+)	
C.	Sodium ions (Na+)	Neurotransmitter	
D.	Calcium ions (Ca2+)	Neurotransmitter	

142.	What causes a resting potential to develop in a neuron?
A.	Diffusion of sodium and potassium ions
B.	Active transport of sodium and potassium ions
C.	Active transport of sodium and diffusion of chloride ions
D.	Active transport of potassium and diffusion of chloride ions

143.	Which ion is pumped into the axon of a neuron to help maintain the resting potential?
A.	Calcium (Ca2+)
B.	Hydrogen (H+)
C.	Potassium (K+)
D.	Sodium (Na+)

144.	After depolorization what happens to restore the resting potential?
A.	Sodium channels open and sodium ions diffuse out of the neuron
B.	Potassium channels open and potassium ions diffuse into the neuron
C.	Potassium channels open and potassium ions diffuse out of the neuron
D.	Sodium channels open and sodium ions diffuse into the neuron

145.	Which division describes the central nervous system?
A.	Peripheral and central
B.	Voluntary and involuntary nerves
C.	Brain and spinal cord
D.	Sensory and motor nerves

146.	Membrane proteins are critical components of nerve function.
Which process in nerves does not require a membrane protein?
A.	Diffusion of neurotransmitter
B.	Active transport of sodium
C.	Propagation of an action potential
D.	Binding of neurotransmitter

147.	When an impulse arrives at a synapse which way do calcium ions move?
A.	Into the synaptic knob from the synaptic cleft
B.	Into the post synaptic nerve cell from the synaptic cleft
C.	Out from the synaptic knob into the synaptic cleft
D.	Out from the post synaptic nerve cell into the synaptic cleft

Muscles and bones

148.	The diagram below shows part of a muscle fibre. What parts are labelled I and II?

	I	II	
A.	Myosin filaments	Actin filaments	
B.	Troponin filaments	Tropomyosin filaments	
C.	Tropomyosin filaments	Troponin filaments	
D.	Actin filaments	Myosin filaments	

149.	When a nerve impulse is received by skeletal muscle it initiates a number of processes that result in contraction. What are the roles of Ca2, tropomyosin and ATP in contraction?
	Ca2	Tropomyosin	ATP	
A.	binds to troponin	exposes binding site	binds to myosin	
B.	binds to myosin	exposes binding site	binds to troponin	
C.	binds to actin	exposes binding site	binds to myosin	
D.	binds to troponin	binds to myosin	binds to actin	

150.	What is the role of ligaments in the elbow joint?
A.	Attach biceps to radius
B.	Reduce friction between humerus, ulna and radius
C.	Hold humerus, ulna and radius in proper alignment
D.	Secrete synovial fluid